QUESTION 1
An engineer uses the Design workflow to create a new network infrastructure in Cisco DNA Center. How is the physical network device hierarchy structured?

A. by location
B. by role
C. by organization
D. by hostname naming convention

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed?

A. The device has not been assigned a workflow.
B. The device could not be added to the fabric.
C. The device had an error and could not be provisioned.
D. The device is from a third-party vendor.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks.
B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks.
C. To attach and register clients to the fabric.
D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is a characteristic of Cisco StackWise technology?

A. It is supported on the Cisco 4500 series.
B. It supports devices that are geographically separated.
C. It uses proprietary cabling.
D. It combines exactly two devices.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A customer transitions a wired environment to a Cisco SD-Access solution. The customer does not want to integrate the wireless network with the fabric. Which
wireless deployment approach enables the two systems to coexist and meets the customer requirement?

A. Implement a Cisco DNA Center to manage the two networks.
B. Deploy a separate network for the wireless environment.
C. Deploy the wireless network over the top of the fabric.
D. Deploy the APs in autonomous mode.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

A. The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170, and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110.
B. EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses the DUAL algorithm.
C. EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.
D. The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170, and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the
correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

A. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.
B. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.
C. Configure a local username with privilege level 15.
D. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the function of an RP in a PIM-SM network?
A. to automate the distribution of group-to-rendezvous point mappings
B. to provide routing to the PIM leaf routers
C. to track sources and receivers on the shared distribution tree
D. to connect multicast sources with receivers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which security option protects credentials from sniffer attacks in a basic API authentication?

A. AAA services to authenticate the API
B. TLS or SSL for communication
C. VPN connection between client and server
D. next-generation firewall

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An engineer must configure router R1 to validate user logins via RADIUS and fall back to the local user database if the RADIUS server is not available. Which
configuration must be applied?

A. aaa authorization exec default radius local
B. aaa authorization exec default radius
C. aaa authentication exec default radius
D. aaa authentication exec default radius local

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What does Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly DNA Center) use to discover network devices?

A. LLDP
B. SNMPv2c
C. CLI credentials
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What method can override the next hop IP address before a packet is routed?

A. network address translation
B. policy-based routing
C. static routing
D. dynamic routing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What is Cisco TrustSec?

A. technology that provides link encryption for wired networks
B. zero-trust security framework
C. technology that provides abstraction between the network topology and network security
D. technology that provides data encryption for data at rest

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which benefit does Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN provide over a traditional WAN solution?

A. distributed date plane
B. reduced training requirements
C. distributed control plane
D. centralized operation and security policies

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which mechanism is used to protect the confidentiality of sensitive information exchanged over REST APIs?

A. IPsec
B. SSH
C. 802.1X
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the primary purpose of policy-based routing?

A. to provide QoS to differentiated traffic
B. to allow routing based on criteria other than the destination IP address
C. to lessen reliance on routes derived from routing protocols
D. to distribute interactive and batch traffic optimally

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
How does the HSRP SSO feature function?

A. It synchronizes the standby RP so traffic continues to be forwarded during a switchover.
B. It decrements the standby router priority when the active router fails.
C. It initiates a fast failover to the standby router during a switchover.
D. It increments the standby router priority when the active router fails.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two components are part of the Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN solution? (Choose two.)

A. fabric edge node
B. Cisco Prime
C. vBond
D. cEdge
E. border node

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
How does policy-based routing function?

A. It controls traffic using embedded event detectors.
B. It schedules traffic using classification.
C. It is applied to all ingress unicast traffic received on an interface.
D. It is applied to all egress unicast traffic on an interface.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What results from sending a PATCH REST API call that contains a malformed JSON body to a server?

A. The server strips the malformed JSON body and executes the call without it.
B. The server attempts to correct the malformed JSON body and execute the call.
C. The server responds with a 4xx response code without executing the call.
D. The server attempts to execute the call and crash.

Correct Answer: C